Pipes & Cistern (Some Selective Questions)

Pipes & Cistern – (Some Selective Questions)

Short methods for answering some of the questions:
Let there be three pipes A, B and C. Let us assume that:
Pipe A takes ‘x’ minutes to fill
Pipe B takes ‘y’ minutes to fill/drain
Pipe C takes ‘z’ minutes to fill/drain.

If A and B are opened, the time taken to fill is given by —- xy/(x + y)

If A, B and C are opened the time taken to fill is given by — xyz/ (xz + yz + xy)

If A fills and B drains the time taken to fill is given by ——- xy/ (y-x)

If A and B fills and C drains the time taken to fill is given by — xyz/ (xz + yz – xy)

1. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 hours and 45 hours respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then, in how much time the tank will be full?
Ans: 20 hours. ( Use the formula — xy/x+y)

2. A pipe can fill the tank in 15 hours. But due to a leak at the bottom it takes 20 hours to fill.If the tank is full then in how much time the leak will empty the tank?
Ans: 60 hours. (Use the formula — xy/y-x. Treat the leak as another pipe that drains the tank)

3. Pipe A and pipe B can fill a tank in 20 hours and 30 hours respectively while pipe C can drain a full tank in 40 hours. If all the three pipes are opened in how much time the tank will become full?
Ans: 17.14 hours (approx.) (use the formula — xyz/ (xz+yz-xy)

4. Pipe A fills a tank of capacity 700 liters at the rate of 40 liters per minute. Pipe B fills the same tank at the rate of 30 liters per minute. Pipe C at the bottom of the tank drains at the rate of 20 liters per minute. If pipe A is kept open for a minute and closed, followed by pipe B also kept open for a minute and closed and finally pipe C kept open for a minute and closed. If these successive operations continue in how much time the tank will be full?
Ans: 42 minutes.
Pipe A in one minute fills —– 40 liters
Pipe B in one minute fills —– 30 liters
Pipe C in one minute drains – 20 liters.
Thus in 3 minutes the tank gets filled ——– 40 + 30 – 20 = 50 liters. (This is one cycle of operation)
The tank capacity is 700 liters and to fill completely will require
700/50 = 14 cycles. Since each cycle of operation is 3 minutes the
total time required to fill the tank is —– 14 x 3 = 42 minutes.

5. Nine large pipes will drain a pond in eight hours and 6 small pipes will drain the same pond in sixteen hours. How long will it take 3 large pipes and 5 small pipes to drain the pond?
Ans: 10 hours 40 minutes or 10 2/3 hours.
9 large pipes take 8 hours to drain the tank.
In one hour 9 large pipes will drain 1/8 tank and
One large pipe in one hour will drain —-1/8 x 1/9 = 1/72 tank.
3 large pipes in one hour will drain — 3 x 1/72 -> 3/72 -> 1/24 tank. ——— (i)
6 small pipes take 16 hours to drain the tank.
In one hour 6 small pipes will drain 1/16 tank and
One small pipe in one hour will drain —- 1/16 x 1/6 = 1/96 tank.
5 small pipes in one hour will drain — 5 x 1/96 -> 5/96 tank. ——————–(ii)
Thus in one hour
3 large pipes and 5 small pipes will drain (i) + (ii) —— 1/24 + 5/96 -> 27/288 -> 3/32 tank.
Hence to drain the entire tank the time taken will be — 32/3 -> 10 2/3 hours.

6. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively, but a third pipe C can empty the full cistern in 6 minutes. A and B are kept open for 5 minutes after which C also is opened. In how much more time the cistern will be empty?
Ans: 45 minutes.
Pipe A in one minute fills — 1/12 . In 5 minutes it will fill —- 5/12 cistern.—— (i)
Pipe B in one minute fills — 1/15 . In 5 minutes it will fill —5/15 -> 1/3 cistern — (ii)
Thus in 5 minutes A and B would have filled —– (i) + (ii) — 5/12 + 1/3 -> (5+4)/12 = ¾ cistern
Hence after 5 minutes the cistern is full up to ¾ level.
Now pipe C also is opened.
In one minute all the three pipes would fill/drain —
1/12 + 1/15 – 1/6 -> (5 + 4 – 10)/60 = -1/60. (minus)
So in each minute the cistern gets drained up 1/60 level.
The cistern was ¾ full when C was opened.
So the time to drain this quantity ——– (3/4) / (1/60) = 45 minutes.

7. 12 buckets of water with each bucket capacity 13.5 liters will fill a tank. How many buckets of capacity 9 liters will be required to fill the tank?
Ans: 18
The capacity of the tank is —– 13.5 x 12 = 162 liters.
The number of buckets of capacity 9 liters required to fill this quantity — 162/9 = 18 buckets.

8. A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 6 hours. Let this leak be called B.
An inlet pipe A can fill the tank at the rate of 4 liters per minute. When the tank is full the inlet pipe is opened and due to the leak it now takes 8 hours to drain. What is the capacity of the tank in liters?
Ans: 5760 liters.
Let the capacity be ‘x’ . Then A takes —– x/4×60 -> x/240 minutes to fill. —– (i)
B takes ——- x/ 6 x60 -> x/360 minutes to drain.
When these two are in operation, the tank gets filled —- x/240 – x/360 = x/720 liters.
Now it is given the time to drain a full tank now is – 8 hours.
Thus we have — x/720 = 8 hours — or ‘x’ = 5760 liters.

Tech Mahindra – Recent Aptitude and Reasoning Questions

Tech Mahindra – Recent Aptitude and Reasoning Questions

1. Consider a group of working men. If 1/10th of the workers are absent then work of each person would be increased by:
(a) 20%
(b) 22.22%
(c) 10%
(d) 11.11%
Ans: (d)
Assume there are 10 workers and they do 100 jobs. Each worker does 10 jobs.
When 1/10 of work force leave, the remaining is 9 workers and they will have to now do 100/9 = 11.11 job. The increase in work load for each person now is – 11.11 – 10 = 1.11
Hence the percentage increase in work load is — 11.11%.

2. Consider the following statements:
(I) All members of team A are good tall guys with an average height of 6 feet.
(II) Average height of members of team B is less than that of team A.
Which could be true among the two options given below?
(a) Every member of team B is shorter than each member of team A.
(b) Few members of team B could be over 6 feet.
Ans: (b)
The average height of team B is less than that of team A which is 6 feet. This does not mean that members of team B are all shorter than members of team A.
It is possible that some members of team B can be more than 6 feet in height though the average of the team is less than 6 feet.

3. John is supposed to walk from his house to park every morning. One morning, he is in real hurry and wants to save at least 1/3rd of the time. By how much percentage he should increase his speed?
(a) 100%
(b) 33%
(c) 66%
(d) 50%
Ans: (d)
Let us assume that John walks 6 km to the park covering in one hour or 60 minutes.
Hence his speed is 6 km/hr
He now wants to cover the distance in 2/3 hour or 40 minutes to save 1/3 of the time.
His new speed will be — 6 / (2/3) Distance/ time gives the speed.
Thus his ne speed will be —- 6 * 3/2 = 9 km/hr.
Thus the increase in speed over the normal speed of 6 km/hr is 3 km/hr or 50%

4. Pointing to the woman in the picture, Govind said, “Her mother has only one grand -child whose mother is my wife”. How is the woman in the picture related to Govind?
(a) Sister
(b) Wife
(c) cousin
(d) data inadequate
Ans: (b)
5. Anand is the uncle of Bimala who is the daughter of Cauvery and Cauvery is the daughter in law of Palani. How is Anand related to Palani?
(a) Son
(b) son in law
(c) Brother
(d) Nephew
Ans: (a)

6. Pointing to a man, Lakshmi says, “This man’s son’s sister is my mother-in-law”. How is the Lakshmi’s husband related to the man?
(a) son
(b) son-in-law
(c) grandson
Ans: (c)

7. A cylinder of diameter 14 and height 7 is converted into a cone of radius 6. Now, what could be the percentage height of the new shape?
(a) 308%
(b) 32%
(c) 2150%
(d) 215%
Ans: (a)
Volume of the cylinder should equal volume of the cone.
Volume of the cylinder is: πr2h -> π * 72 * 7 -> 343π ————- (i)
Volume of the cone is : 1/3 (πr2h) -> 1/3 (π * 62 * h) -> 12πh —— (ii)
Since (i) and (ii) are equal we get the value of h as —– h = 343/12
Percentage increase in height ——- [(343/12) – 7] / 7 * 100 = 308% (approx.)

8. Find the largest number which gives out reminders 2 and 5 when used to divide 80 and 122.
(a) 19
(b) 17
(c) 13
(d) infinite number of solutions
Ans: (c)
Find the HCF of (80 -2) and (122 – 5) -> 78 and 117. HCF is 13 and that’s the answer.

9. Find the ratio of the volumes of a sphere and cone of same radius. Also the height of the cone is twice its radius.
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
Ans: (d)
The volume of a sphere is 4/3 πr3.
Volume of a cone is 1/3 (πr2h). It is given in the question that h is equal to 2r.
Thus we get the volume of the cone as –—- 1/3 ( πr2*2r) -> 2/3πr3
Hence the ratio of volume of sphere and cone ——- 4/3 πr3 / 2/3 πr3 -> 2 : 1
10. Find the missing number in the sequence 504 , _ , 990, 1320, 1716
(a) 720
(b) 1000
(c) 721
(d) 790
Ans: (a)
The series is (n3-n). The first is 83-8, the second is 93-9, the third is 103-10 and so on.

11. The perimeter of a square and a rectangle is the same. If the rectangle is 12 cm by 10 cm, then by what percentage is the area of the square more than that of the rectangle?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5/6
(d) 1/2
Ans: (c)
Since the sides of the rectangle are 12 cm and 10 cm, its perimeter is – 2*12 + 2*10 = 44 cm
The perimeter of the Square is the same as the rectangle and is — 44 cm
Hence each side of the square is – 44/4 = 11 cm.
The area of the square is — 11*11 = 121 sq.cm.
The area of the rectangle is — 12 * 10 = 120 sq.com
Thus the Area of the square is 1 cm more than the area of the rectangle.
The percentage increase in the area —— 1/120 * 100 = 5/6%

12. Capacity of a cylindrical vessel is 25,872 litres. If the height of the cylinder is 200% more than the radius of its base, what is the area of the base in square cms?
(a) 336
(b) 1232
(c) 616
(d) cannot be determined
Ans: (c)
The volume of the cylinder is — πr2h. Now from the information h = r +(200% of r) = 3r
Thus the volume of the cylinder is — 3πr3 and this is equal to — 25872 litres.
Hence – r3 = 25872/3π -> 25872 / 3*22/7 -> 2744 and r = 14.
Hence the area of the base is —- πr2 -> 22/7 * 14 * 14 = 616 sq.cm

13. If the radius of a circle is increased by 12%, then the area of the circle
(a) decreases by 25.44%
(b) increases by 25.44%
(c) no change in area
(d) decreases by 12%
Ans: (b) (No working is required)

14. Aravamudhan, Balakrishnan and Chinnan work in a developing software company in starting level positions. However their salaries are different. Aravamudhan’s salary to Balakrishnan’s salary and Balakrishnan’s salary to Chinnan’s salary are in the ratio 4:3. If the total salary of all the three employees is Rs.29230, what is the salary of Chinnan?
(a) Rs.12640
(b) Rs.9480
(c) Rs.7110
(d) Rs.8660
Ans: (c)
Ratio of Aravamudhan : Balakrishnan :: 4 : 3
Ratio of Balakrishnan : Chinnan :: 4 : 3
Now assuming Aravamudhan salary as Rs 4, then Balakrishnan’s salary will be Rs 3.
Now Balakrishnan/Chinnan = 4/3 -> 3/Chinnan = 4/3 -> Chinnan salary will be 9/4.
Thus the total salary of all the three is ———- 4 + 3 + 9/4 -> 37/4
We know the total salary is Rs 29230 which is equal to 37/4 (as arrived above)
Chinnan’s salary is 9/4 which is equal to —- 29230 * (9/4)/(37/4) -> Rs 7,110/-

15. Three cricket players — Ramesh, Suresh and Ganesh play for three different cricket Teams – Haryana, Delhi and Rajasthan respectively. Ramesh was born in Chennai but brought up in Karnal, Haryana. Suresh was born in Delhi and brought up in Delhi. Ganesh’s fore-fathers were from Madurai but settled in Rajasthan. All the three participated in a cricket tournament. Ramesh’s runs to Suresh’s runs and Suresh’s runs to Ganesh’s runs are in the ratio 5:7. If the total runs scored by all the three players in the tournament is 327, find the total runs scored by Suresh in the tournament?
(a) 95
(b) 85
(c) 65
(d) 105
Ans: (d)
This question is similar to the earlier question and we shall proceed from the last ratio:
Suresh : Ganesh :: 5 : 7
Ramesh : Suresh :: 5 : 7
Assuming Ganesh scored 7 runs, then Suresh scored 5 runs.
Now, Ramesh/Suresh :: 5/7 -> 7 Ramesh = 5 x 5 = 25. Hence, Ramesh = 25/7
We know the total runs scored as 327.
Thus we have —– (R) 25/7 + (S) 5 + (G) 7 = 327 -> 109/7 = 327.
Runs scored by Suresh is ——- 327/(109/7) * 5 -> 105.

Tech Mahindra – Verbal (Recent Questions)

Tech Mahindra – Verbal (Recent Questions)
1. The sentence below represents Direct/Indirect speech. From the below options, choose which one is the best example for the mentioned sentence:
She told her, “I know where the dog is”
(a) She told her that she knew where the dog is.
(b) She told her that she knows where the dog was.
(c) She told her that she knew where the dog was.
(d) She told that she knew where the dog is.
Ans: (a)
Identify the Synonym in the following questions:
(a) Thorough
(b) Trivial
(c) Eager
(d) Excessive
Ans: (d)

(a) Consume Rapidly
(b) Jump around
(c) Identify
(d) Bring together
Ans: (a) (This answer is suspect)

4. Fill the blank space with the appropriate word from the choices:
The boy at the river was not eating _________ food.
(a) a
(b) nothing
(c) any
Ans: (c)

5. Choose the word that identify the sentence:
Study of skin and skin diseases
(a) Orthopaedics
(b) Dermatology
(c) Gynaecology
(d) Endocrinology
Ans: (b)

6. Rearrange the following to make a meaningful sentence and then identify the third and second sentence in that order.
1. Except, we all contributed in the beginning days.
2. Manohar has just joined his office, he has been transferred.
3. At first, he could not get hold of the city culture.
4. Chandrapur is basically a rural area.
5. Currently, Manohar feels proud of his partners.
6. Before being transferred he worked in the Chandrapur office.
Ans: 4 and 6
(The order of the sentence is : 2, 6, 4, 3, 1, 5

7. Arrange the following jumbled sentences in a cogent order making it a meaningful paragraph.
(A) A pact where a new government is being formed
(B) The Liberals and the NDP commented that their plan is to end the reign of Harper Conservative government by coming Monday.
(C) If the present one falls apart as a result of lack of confidence
(D) The opposition leaders of Canada have signed
(a) ADCB
(b) DACB
(c) DABC
(d) ABCD
Ans: (c)

8. Choose a better word to use, in the place of the underlined one:
Can you open this knot?
(a) Break
(b) Loose
(c) No improvement
(d) Untie
Ans: (d)

In the following questions identify the Antonym for the given word.
9. Comic
(a) Fearful
(b) Tragic
(c) Painful
(d) Emotional
Ans: (c)

10. Annoy
(a) Please
(b) Rejoice
(c) Admire
(d) Reward
Ans: (a)

11. Hapless
(a) Consistent
(b) Shaped
(c) Cheerful
(d) Fortunate
Ans: (d)

12. Niggardly
(a) Generous
(b) Stingy
(c) Thrifty
(d) Frugal
Ans: (a)

13. What is the order of the following words so that they form a meaningful sentence?
1. Suddenly
2. left
3. the
4. He
5. House
(a) 12345 (b) 14235 (c) 32415 (d) 53421
Ans: (b)
Fill the blanks with appropriate words:

14. I can have ____ a pizza __ a chicken dish for lunch.
(a) Whether, or
(b) As, whereas
(c) Either, or
Ans: (c)

15. ___ my father __ my mother are from Mumbai.
(a) Both, and
(b) Either, or
(c) Both, with
Ans: (a)

Read the following passage and the answer questions 16 to 19.

At a stage like this in human civilization, it is of utmost interest that nations’ coarse ignorance towards one another decreases. People should start understanding a bit of histories of other cultures, other countries and the resulting mentality developed. It is really fault of Englishmen because they expected people to run the world as they wanted to, in international as well as political situations. We many a times expect people to be the way we are and because of that nothing is made out of our actual kindness and good intents. This could be corrected, not to be a very wide extent but to a certain limit if we knew global history, even outlines of it, about the conditions, social and political, which have lead the country to shape up as it has currently.

16. Author wants the people of his country to:

(a) Read other nation’s policies
(b) Have a better perceptive of other countries
(c) Not to react with war
(d) Have close contacts with all the countries
Ans: (b)

17. A better understanding among countries:
(a) Has always been present
(b) There is no need of that
(c) Is now needed more than ever
(d) Will always remain
Ans: (c)

18. The character that a country develops is mainly because of its:
(a) Mentality
(b) Gross Ignorance
(c) Socio-Political Conditions
(d) Cultural Heritage
Ans: (a)

19. The fault of Englishmen was that they expected others to react to social and political situations like ________.
(a) Everyone
(b) Themselves
(c) Others
(d) Us
Ans: (b)

20. Identify the word that is spelt correctly:
(a) Voguei
(b) Equestrain
(c) Asspersion
(d) Voluptuous
Ans: (d)

English – Verbal (for CAT, MBA)

English – Verbal (for CAT, MBA) (Sourced)

The last sentence is removed from the following paragraph. From among the given options choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate manner.
1. Persons do not become a society by living in physical proximity, any more than a man ceases to be socially influenced by being so many feet or miles removed from others. A book or a letter may institute a more intimate association between human beings separated thousands of miles from each other than exists between dwellers under the same roof. Individuals do not even compose a social group because they all work for a common end. The parts of a machine work with maximum cooperativeness for a common result, but they do not form a community. If, however, they were all cognizant of the common end and all interested in it so that they regulated their specific activity in view of it, then they would form a community. But this would involve communication. Each would have to know what the other was about and would have to have some way of keeping the other informed as to his own purpose and progress – thereby communicating overall progress. ———————————
(a) Consensus demands communication.
(b) There is a compelling reason to believe that within even the most social group there are many relations which are not as yet social.
(c) Individuals use one another so as to get desired results, without reference to the emotional and intellectual disposition and consent of those used.
(d) Not only is social life identical with communication, but all communication, and hence all genuine social life, is educative.
(e) Society is thus made or marred by effective communication.

Answer the question based on the following passage:

2. Plato, like Xenophon, was a pupil of Socrates but Xenophon only wanted to be the clerk of Socrates; and Plato, as an enthusiastic disciple, was at the same time very faithful and unfaithful to Socrates. He was a faithful disciple of Socrates in never failing to place morality in the foremost rank of all philosophical considerations; in that he never varied. He was an unfaithful disciple to Socrates in that, imaginative and an admirable poet, he bore back philosophy from earth to heaven; he did not forbid himself – quite the contrary – to pile up great systems about all things and to envelope the universe in his vast and daring conceptions. He invincibly established morality, the science of virtue, as the final goal of human knowledge, in his brilliant and charming Socratic Dialogues; he formed great systems in all the works in which he introduces himself as speaking in his own name. He was very learned, and acquainted with everything that had been written by all the philosophers before Socrates, particularly Heraclitus, Pythagoras, Parmenides and Anaxagoras. He reconsidered all their teaching and he himself brought to consideration, a force and a wealth of mind which appeared to have had no parallel in the world,

It is clear from the passage that:
(a) Plato provided to the world what generations after him would follow.
(b) Plato’s mind has been proven to be unparalleled in the history of the universe.
(c) Plato followed the teachings of Socrates and also provided a new meaning,
(d) Plato remained unchallenged during his times.
(e) Plato has proved what Socrates could not do in his life time.

3. The correct word from the set of two Italicized words in each of the sentences would form a pattern. Choose the correct pattern from among the options given.

I. The Climatic (A)/ Climactic (B) moment of the mystery revealed the murderer to be the character least suspected by all.
II. He was criticized for his contemptuous (A)/ contemptible (B) behavior in the class.
III. In order to not get noticed, he kept a discreet (A)/ discrete (B) distance while following her
IV. His childlike (A)/ childish (B) pranks did not go down well with his classmates.
V. The dining (A)/ dinning (B) room was already full of guests when I entered.


4. The following question consists of a paragraph in which the first and the last sentences are fixed and the sentences in between jumbled. Choose from the options the most logical sequence of the intermediate sentences.

I. We cross the threshold of one, and are accosted by a female who, speaking in musical accents, invites us to sit down.

A. We are welcome in her humble cabin; but her dark, languishing eyes, so full f intensity, watch us with irresistible suspicion.
B. She has none of Africa’s blood in her veins; no! Her features are beautifully olive, and the intonation of her voice discovers a different origin.
C. How reserved she seems, and yet how quickly she moves her graceful figure when she places her right hand upon her finely-arched forehead, parts the heavy folds of glossy hair that hangs carelessly over her brown shoulders, and with a half-suppressed smile answers our salutation.
D. Her figure is tall and well-formed; she has delicately-formed hands and feet, long tapering fingers, well-rounded limbs, and an oval face, shaded with melancholy.

II. They are the symbols of her inward soul; they speak through that melancholy pervading her countenance.
(a) BDCA
(b) ACDB
(c) ABDC
(d) BCAD
(e) ADBC

5. The following set of labeled sentences is jumbled and forms a coherent paragraph when sequenced correctly. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

A. It drifted northwards through the state, then turned back to the south and re-entered the Gulf of Mexico.
B. The first storm of the season, Allison lasted unusually long for a June storm, remaining tropical or subtropical for 15 days.
C. Allison was the first storm since tropical storm Frances in 1998 to strike the upper Texas coastline.
D. The storm continued to the east-north east, making landfall on Louisiana and then moving across the south-east United States and Mid-Atlantic.
E. The storm developed from a tropical wave in the northern Gulf of Mexico on June 4, and struck the northern Texas coast shortly thereafter.

6. Introduction of cheap small cars in the Indian market is going to result in a major traffic crisis, especially in overcrowded metros. The problem of lack of parking space is bound to become even more acute. Already the growing two wheeler and premium car markets are pushing the infrastructure to its limit. The introduction of more small cars is just going to increase the difficulties faced by the common man in day to day life.

Which of the following if true will weaken most the above argument?

(a) Small cars occupy lesser parking space and are easier to maneuver in traffic.
(b) Bigger cars are less fuel efficient and contribute more to air pollution.
(c) The government is going to enact a law that big and premium cars will be charged additional road tax.
(d) The public transport system is not good enough to provide viable and effective means of transport for the common man.
(e) The introduction of small cars is projected to reduce the two wheeler market by 80% and medium sized car market by 50%.

7. The last sentence in the following passage is removed. Choose from among the options the one that completes the passage in most appropriate manner.

It is true the driving force behind corporate responsibility is ‘enlightened self-interest’. What must be also acknowledged is that it is the enlightened self-interest for Governments and NGOs to work in partnership with business. The private sector provides the know-how, capital and infrastructure from which countries and communities can grow economically and fund social development. _____________________________________.

(a) And it can provide to society goods and services, profitably and responsibly.
(b) And corporate social responsibility is adequately represented by voluntary philanthropy.
(c) And corporate responsibility is not about pretending to solve the problems of the world especially governments and NGOs.
(d) And it can provide expertise to support the goals of governments and NGOs.
(e) And it would be wrong to assume that Small and Medium sized enterprises are not engaged in corporate social responsibility.

8. Nano technology refers broadly to a field of applied science and technology whose unifying theme is the control of matter on the atomic and molecular scale, normally 1 to 100 nanometers, and the fabrication of devices with critical dimensions that lie within that size range. It is a highly multidisciplinary field, drawing from fields such as applied physics, material science, interface and colloid science, device physics, supra molecular chemistry (which refers to the area of chemistry that focusses on the noncovalent bonding interactions of the molecules), self-replicating machines and robotics, chemical engineering, mechanical engineering, biological engineering and electrical engineering. Much speculation exists as to what may result from the lines of research. Nanotechnology can be seen as an extension of existing sciences into the nanoscale, or as a recasting of existing sciences using a newer, modern term.

From the following five summaries, choose the one that captures the essence of the above passage.

(a) Nanotechnology is a highly multidisciplinary technology for the control of the matter at the atomic or molecular scale and the fabrication of devices at that scale. In future, existing science may extend to nanoscale.
(b) Nanotechnology, whose theme is the control of matter at the atomic or molecular scale and the fabrication of devices at that scale, draws from various fields from applied physics to electrical engineering. The future of nanotechnology is rife with speculation.
(c) Nanotechnology, whose theme is the control of matter at the atomic or molecular scale and the fabrication of devices at that scale, draws from various fields. In future, nanotechnology may impact all other sciences.
(d) Nanotechnology is a highly multidisciplinary technology for the control of the matter at the atomic or molecular scale and the fabrication of devices at that scale. In future, existing sciences may use a more modern term.
(e) Nanotechnology, whose aim is the control of matter at the atomic or molecular scale and the fabrication of devices at that scale, draws from various fields. The future of nanotechnology is uncertain but it may impact all other sciences.

Answers: 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (e) 7. (d) 8. (c)

Reasoning – 8

Reasoning – 8


In making decisions about important questions it is desirable to distinguish between ‘strong’ and ‘weak’ arguments so far as they relate to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments may not directly be related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related the trivial aspects of the question.

Each question below is followed by two arguments, marked I and II. Please decide which of the arguments a strong argument and which is weak argument.

Mark answer (a) if only argument I alone is strong.
Mark (b) if argument II is strong.
Mark (c) if either argument I or II is strong.
Mark (d) if neither I nor II is strong.
Mark (e) if both the arguments are strong.

1. Should Doordarshan be given autonomous status?
(I) Yes. It will help Doordarshan to have fair and impartial coverage of all important events.
(II) No. The coverage of events will be decided by a few who may not have a healthy outlook.

2. Should private companies be allowed to operate air services in India?
(I) Yes. Indian private management usually gives better services.
(II) No. We should not imitate the western countries.

3. Should all the remote parts of the country be connected by road?
(I) No. It will disturb the peaceful simple life of the villagers.
(II) Yes. It must be done immediately.

4. Should computers be used in all possible sectors in India?
(I) Yes. It will bring down inefficiency and accuracy in the work.
(II) No. It will be an injustice to the monumental human resources that are at present under- utilized.

5. Should all the legislators be forced to resign from their profession?
(I) No. Nobody will then contest an election.
(II) Yes. They will then be able to devote more time for the country.

Answers: 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (d)


In the following questions a statement is given followed by two assumptions marked (I) and (II). An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Mark answer (a) if assumption I alone is implicit,
Mark (b) if assumption II is implicit.
Mark (c) if either assumption I or II is implicit.
Mark (d) if neither I nor II is implicit.
Mark (e) if both the assumptions are implicit.

1. Call a dog mad and then shoot it.
(I) Generally any act should be socially acceptable.
(II) Dogs are not mad.

2. Be humble even after gaining victory.
(I) Many people are humble after gaining victory.
(II) Generally people are not humble.

3. It is dangerous to lean out of a running train.
(I) All those who lean out of a running train run the risk of getting hurt.
(II) Generally people do not want to get hurt.

4. “Buy pure and natural honey of company X” – an advertisement in a newspaper.
(I) Artificial honey can be prepared.
(II) People do not mind paying more for pure and natural honey.

5. “Buy pure and natural honey of company X” – an advertisement in a newspaper.
(I) No other company supplies pure and natural honey.
(II) People read advertisements.

6. The USA re-emerged as India’s largest importer in the early nineties.
(I) With swift political developments in the Soviet Union, India began to rely on USA.
(II) USA was the only country which wanted to meet the requirements of India.

7. India’s economy is mainly depending on forests.
(I) Trees should be preserved to improve Indian economy.
(II) India wants only maintenance of forests to improve economic conditions.

8. If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants.
(I) Water pollution affects the growth of water plants.
(II) Water pollution reduces the availability of oxygen in water.

9. If Dr. Ramesh’s theory is correct, then the events he predicts will happen. The events he predicted did happen. Therefore his theory must be correct.

The conclusion drawn in the argument above would be valid if one of the following were to be true. Identify the same.

(A) Only Dr. Ramesh’s theory fully explains the events that happened.
(B) If the events Dr. Ramesh predicted happen, then his theory is correct.
(C) If Dr. Ramesh’s theory is correct, then the events he predicted may happen.
(D) Only Dr. Ramesh predicted the events which happened.

Answers: 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d)

8. (e) 9. (a)

English Verbal – 19

English – Verbal – 19

The following are some common mistakes made in the English language and their correct version.

Incorrect What is the difference of these two things?
Correct What is the difference between these two things?

Incorrect What is the time on your watch?
Correct What is the time by your watch?

Incorrect Lucy has been absent from Monday?
Correct Lucy has been absent since Monday?

Incorrect We will tolerate no interference with our internal affairs.
Correct We will tolerate no interference in our internal affairs.

Incorrect The answer of this question is quite complicated.
Correct The answer to this question is quite complicated.

Incorrect Under the help of an influential friend, he got the job.
Correct With the help of an influential friend, he got the job.

Incorrect Nobody is bound to suffering.
Correct Nobody is bound to suffer.

Incorrect Some people are not used to live in a hot country.
Correct Some people are not used to living in a hot country.

Incorrect Susan is incapable to complete the task by herself.
Correct Susan is incapable of completing the task by herself.

Incorrect Nobody can avoid to make mistakes.
Correct Nobody can avoid making mistakes.

The following are some of the Verbal Questions picked up from various IT companies’ placement Papers

In the following questions:
Select the best alternative to the portion in the sentence which is in inverted comma. Select the portion that you think is the best option. Be attentive to matters of grammar, diction and syntax as well as clarity, precision and fluency. Do not select the answer which alters the meaning of the original sentence.

1. “May I venture to say that I think this performance is the most superior” I have ever heard
(a) May I venture to say that I think this performance is the most superior.
(b) May I venture to say that this performance is the most superior.
(c) May I say that this performance is the most superior.
(d) I think this performance is superior to any.
(e) This performance is the most superior of any.
Ans: (d)

2. “When one eats in this restaurant, you often find” that the prices are high and the food is poorly prepared.
(a) When one eats in this restaurant, you often find.
(b) When one eats in this restaurant, one often find.
(c) As you eat in this restaurant, you often find.
(d) If you eat in this restaurant, you often find.
(e) When one ate in this restaurant, he often found.
Ans: (c)

3. “She not only was competent but also friendly” in nature.
(a) She not only was competent but also friendly.
(b) Not only was she competent but friendly also.
(c) She not only was competent but friendly also
(d) She was not only competent but also friendly.
(e) She was not only competent but friendly also.
Ans: (d)

4. “We want the teacher to be him” who has the best rapport with the students.
(a) We want the teacher to be him.
(b) We want the teacher to be he.
(c) We want him to be the teacher.
(d) We desire that the teacher be him.
(e) We anticipate that the teacher will be him.
Ans: (c)

5. “Using it wisely”, leisure promotes health, efficiency and happiness.
(a) Using it wisely.
(b) If used wisely.
(c) Having used it wisely.
(d) Because it is used wisely.
(e) Because of usefulness.
Ans: (b)

Reasoning – 7

Reasoning – 7
1. The town of Paranda is located on Green Lake. The town of Akram is west of Paranda. Kakran is east of Bopri but west of Tokhada and Akram. If they are all on the same district, which town is the farthest west?
(a) Paranda (b) Kakran (c) Akram (d) Tokhada (e) Bopri

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus forms a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) February (b) March (c) April (d) May (e) June

3. If A * B means ‘A is the mother of B’ and A x B means ‘A is the husband of B’ which of the following show ‘P is the father of Q’?
(a) Q * M x P (b) P * Q (c) Q * P (d) P x M * Q (e) None of these

4. A bus from Mumbai leaves every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago, and the next bus would leave at 9.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger?
(a) 9.05 a.m. (b) 9.35 a.m. (c) 8.55 a.m. (d) 9.15 a.m. (e) 9.25 a.m.

5. In a row of girls, if Seeta who is 10th from the left and Lima who is 7th from the right interchange their seats, Seeta becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(a) 17 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 25 (e) None of these

6. In the following series, how many numbers of 5 that is not preceded by 3 but is immediately followed by 7 are there?
1 5 7 3 5 7 4 7 3 7 2 5 6 5 7 5 7 4 5 6 3 5 7
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5

7. In a certain code ‘JUDICIAL’ is written as ‘LADICIUJ’. How is ‘GLORIOUS’ written in that code?
(a) GLOIROUS (b) USDRIOGL (c) SOUIROLG (d) LGORIOSU (e) None of these

8. In a telephone directory which of the following names will appear in the middle?
(a) Rajratnam (b) Rajrathanam (c) Rajrathnam (d) Rajratanam (e) Raajrathnam

9. Words are arranged alphabetically in a dictionary because:
(a) It is the simplest method
(b) It is the practice
(c) It enables finding any word quickly
(d) It makes for ease in printing
(e) It saves space by avoiding repetition

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(a) Beam (b) Column (c) House (d) Roof (e) Wall

11. Which of the following must a ‘Drama’ have?
(a) Actor (b) Story (c) Director (d) Sets (e) Spectators

12. If orange is called butter, butter is called soap, soap is called ink, ink is called honey, and honey is called orange, which of the following is used for washing clothes?
(a) Honey (b) Butter (c) Orange (d) Soap (e) None of these

13. Disease is related to Pathology in the same way as Planet is related to?
(a) Sun (b) Satellite (c) Astrology (d) Astronomy (e) Orbit

14. If South-East becomes North, North-East become West and so on what will West become?
(a) North-East (b) North-West (c) South-East (d) South-West (e) South

15. If ‘+’ means ‘minus’, ‘-‘ means ‘multiplied’ by, ‘/’ means ‘plus’ and ‘x’ means ‘divided’ by then
10 x 5 /3 – 2 + 3 = ?
(a) -26/16 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 172/3 (e) None of these

1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (e) Ans: 21
6. (c) 7. (e) Ans: SUORIOLG 8. (b) 9. (c)
10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (e) 13. (d) 14. (c)
15. (b)

English – Verbal & Reasoning – 3

English – Verbal & Reasoning – 3
Two passages are given hereunder, followed by five inferences on each of them that can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine the inferences separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark your answer:
(a) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ if it properly follows from the statement of facts;
(b) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ from the statement of facts;
(c) If the data are inadequate to arrive at an answer;
(d) If the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ from the statement of facts;
(e) And if the inference is ‘definitely false’ from the statement of facts.

(Note: The two passages are culled from old CAT examination papers and the data thereon may not be relevant to the present day situation. However, the intent in presenting them is to give the readers an opportunity to understand the manner in which questions are drafted.)

Passage 1

According to trade estimates, the black pepper crop will be in the range of 75,000 to 90,000 tons, during the pepper season from November 1989 to October 1990. The crop will thus be the double of that of the 1988-89 season. Besides a good monsoon, the record production is attributed to the crash program launched in Kerala by the state government last June. Although 80 percent of the country’s total black pepper production is from Kerala, the yield per hectare is low at 300kg, as compared to550kg in Indonesia and 1200 kg in Brazil.

1. India exports more black pepper than Brazil.
Ans: (e)

2. The black pepper crop during 1988-89 was about 30,000 tons.
Ans: (b)

3. In no other state in the country is the black pepper yield more than 300kg per hectare.
Ans; (c)

4. The Central Government helped the Kerala Government in implementing the crash program
Ans: (e)

5. A good water supply is needed for cultivating black pepper.
Ans: (c)

Passage 2

The only dark cloud on the economic horizon is the rather unsatisfactory foreign exchange position, and one may hope that industry will play its role in improving it by contributing to its export. The all-round progress of our company is continuing. I am happy to report that during the first half of the current year (April – September 1989), there have been further improvements in its working.

6. The country is having inadequate foreign exchange reserves.
Ans: (a)
7. The current financial year of the company will end on 31st March, 1990.
Ans: (a)

8. In foreign countries there is no demand for the products manufactured by the company.
Ans: (e)

9. The Government of the country has asked the company to export its goods.
Ans: (b)

10. The report is presented by the Chairman of the company to the shareholders.

Reasoning – Decision Making

Read the following information and then answer the questions that follow:

A company has the following Gratuity (G) and Provident Fund (PF) rules.

1. An employee must have completed one year service to be eligible for either G and PF.
2. An employee resigning, retiring or retrenched after 10 years’ service gets both G and PF
3. An employee retrenched or retired after 5 years but before 10 years’ service gets both G and PF;
But those resigning during this period get either G or PF.
4. An employee retrenched or retired before 5 years’ service gets PF but not G; but those resigning during this period gets neither G nor PF.
5. In case an employee dies after 2 years’ service, his family gets both G and PF.
6. In case an employee was on leave without pay, such period is deducted from his total years’ of service and then the above rules are applied.
7. In the case of a lady employee, if she has completed 2 years’ service, two more years are added to her actual service before applying the above rules, as a special consideration.

Mark your answer:
(a) If only G can be given
(b) If only PF can be given
(c) If either G or PF can be given
(d) If both G and PF can be given
(e) If neither G nor PF can be given.

1. Mr. Kamal serving the company for five years (out of which for one year he was on leave without pay), was retrenched from service.

2. Miss. Sarita served the company for four years and resigned.

3. Mrs. Padmaja served the company for five years and was retrenched.

4. Mr. Basu served in the company for seven years and resigned after a prolonged illness of three years during which he was on leave without pay.

5. Mr. Dixit served in the company for five years and resigned.

6. Mr. Som after four years of service in the company resigned.

7. Mrs. Vanaja served for 18 months in the company and was retrenched.

8. Mr. Junejo while serving the company for three years died.

9. Mr Vakil was retrenched from the company after seven years.

10. Mrs. Pamela was retrenched from service by the company after her putting in three years of service of which she was on loss of pay for 18 months.


1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (c) 6. (e) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)