English Verbal (for CAT Exams) – 3

English Verbal – (for CAT Exams) – 3

Each of the following questions has one or two blanks. At the end of the sentence are given four choices of words and/or phrases. Identify the one that fits the blanks to make it a meaningful sentence.

1. Like a furnace and its controlling thermostat, that produces more heat when the room gets too cold and less when the temperature warms up, the body’s endocrines is a ———– system.
(a) Self-sufficient (b) well planned (c) well adjusted (d) self-regulating

2. The First World War was ———- to alter all previous concepts of war and to render the idea of armed conflict so horrible that ————- man hoped it would never occur again.
(a) Fated — fighting (b) destined – rational (c) geared – sensible (d) made — horrified

3. Britain’s greatest achievement was also perhaps her most ironic; out of the welter of disparate regions, castes, languages and traditions of India, Britain managed to fashion a ———– nation-only to have it ———- her.
(a) Fledgling — turn on (b) strong — turn to (c) mighty —back out on
(d) nascent – co-operate with

4. No one person invented jazz; but two men do ——— out as great ———–.
(a) Come — discoverers (b) level — originators (c) stand — pioneers
(d) hold — inventors

5. It would be a great mistake to confine your ———- to the way things have always been done; in fact, it would consign you to the ———- of the market place.
(a) Imagination — mediocrity (b) thinking —- tedium (c) actions —- routine
(d) deeds —dullness

Given under are a set of letters with numbers followed by set of four choices of numbers. Choose the correct choice of the numbers that would form a word with the respective letters of the numbers.

6. G B D A R E
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 1 4 5 3 2 6 (b) 2 4 3 1 6 5 (c) 2 5 6 4 3 1 (d) 1 4 5 2 3 6

7. E S O O I T
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 2 3 4 6 5 1 (b) 6 3 4 2 5 1 (c) 3 4 2 5 6 1 (d) 4 6 5 3 2 1

8. R M P E O
1 2 3 4 5
(a) 1 5 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 5 4 2 (c) 3 5 4 2 1 (d) 2 5 3 4 1

9. D R C H N I E L
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(a) 3 4 6 8 1 2 7 5 (b) 3 4 6 1 2 7 5 8 (c) 7 8 1 2 6 5 3 4 (d) 1 6 2 5 3 4 7 8

10. C C O U B L I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) 2 6 7 5 3 4 1 (b) 2 7 6 53 4 1 (c) 5 4 1 3 6 7 2 (d) 5 4 2 1 3 6 7

Each of the following sentences are split into four parts. Identify the part that has an error in it.

11. (a) The result of all these delays and cancellations,
(b) even though they were due to
(c) factors beyond our control,
(d) have caused great confusion.

12. (a) Though, ordinarily, he is friendly
(b) you cannot deny
(c) that, on occasions,
(d) he can be an horrible liar.

13. (a) Neither the lazy chap
(b) nor his
(c) equally lazy wife
(d) wake before 10 O’clock.

14. (a) I sat
(b) contentedly
(c) in the park
(d) watching the dog playing and smoking my pipe.

15. (a) Never before has India in particular,
(b) and Asia in general,
(c) been so severely threatened
(d) by the American war machine.

The sentences in each of the following questions are jumbled. From among the choices given, identify the proper sequence of the sentences to make a cogent and sensible paragraph.

16. (A) Things we did as kids and thought nothing of, the standard capers of all young animals, now make headlines and shake up police department.
(B) The young are always news.
(C) When the newspapers have got nothing else to talk about, they cut loose on the young.
(D) If they aren’t that is news too.
(E) If they are up to something that is news.

(a) CBEDA (b) CBDEA (c) EBDCA (d) ABCED

17. (A) You can be the first family on your block to wait out the H-bomb in luxury.
(B) It has reached what is probably its high water mark.
(C) It was of course Thorstein Veblen who observed that people are torn between choosing pleasures for their own sake, and for the purpose of maintaining and upgrading their social position.
(D) The American thirst for status and its symbols has been sufficiently documented to need any belabouring here.
(E) A radiation fall-out shelter is now available with lounge chairs and wall-to-wall carpeting as well as the usual paraphernalia of sledge hammers and first aid kits.

(a) ACDBE (b) CDBEA (c) DCBEA (d) CBDEA

18. (A) The differences between minds of men and women are numerous, and we often joke about them.
(B) Or, are they cultural, imposed perhaps in childhood by the different expectations and behavior of the adults in our society toward the growing boy and girl?
(C) If a man’s car hits a laundry truck and he phones his wife about it, the first thing she asks is the name of the laundry.
(D) There are three kinds of mental differences that interest me, the difference between men and women, between genius and stupidity, and between different creative talents.
(E) Are such differences in outlook innate, a matter of sexual difference in brain physiology and organization?

(a) DECBA (b) EDCBA (c) DACEB (d) CBEAD

19. (A) In nuclear physics it has recently turned out that for ten years, the best experiments on beta-decay have been wrong or misleading.
(B) But this field is lucky.
(C) One of the troubles in science is that there are twenty Lestrades messing up the footprints and confusing the evidence for every Holmes who gets back to fundamentals and straightens it out.
(D) Not really Lestrade results; just the elusiveness of wily Moriarty again; and they are on the rack once more.
(E) Most fields have nothing but Lestrade results for a decade at a time.

(a) CADBE (b) CADEB (c) CABED (d) CAEDB

20. (A) Every teacher imagines that one of the day dreamers is simply stepping to the music of a different drummer.
(B) (Think how slow a human would seem at Chimpanzee lessons)
(C) It is true that some of the great ones have been slow in school.
(D) Do most of the geniuses go unrecognized?
(E) But most of those who make their mark show some sign early and are picked for success.

(a) DBCAE (b) DCBAE (c) DEBCA (d) ACBDE

Answers

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)

11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)

English Verbal – (for CAT Exams) – 2

English Verbal – (For CAT Exams) – 2
Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow:

It is evident that there is a close connection between the capacity to use language and the capacities covered by the verb ‘to think’. Indeed, some writers have identified thinking with using words: Plato coined the aphorism, ‘In thinking the soul is talking to itself’: G. B. Watson reduced thinking to inhibited speech located in the minute movements or tensions of the physiological mechanisms involved in speaking; and although Ryle is careful to point out that there are many senses in which a person is said to think in which words are not in evidence, he has also said that saying something in a specific frame of mind as thinking a thought.

Is thinking reducible to, or dependent upon, language habits? It would seem that many thinking situations are hardly distinguishable from the skillful use of language, although there are some other in which language is not involved. Thought cannot be simple identified with using language. It may be the case, of course, that the non-linguistic skills involved in thought can only be acquired and developed if the learner is able to use and understand language. However, this question is one which we cannot hope to answer here. Obviously being able to use language makes for a considerable development in all one’s capacities but how precisely this comes about we cannot say.

At the common sense level it appears that there is often a distinction between thought and the words we employ to communicate with other people. We often have to struggle hard to find words to capture what our thinking has already grasped, and when we do find words we sometimes feel that they fail to do their job properly. Again when we report or describe our thinking to other people we do not merely report unspoken words and sentences. Such sentences do not always occur in thinking, and when they do they are merged with vague imagery and the hint of unconscious or subliminal activities going on just out of range. Thinking, as it happens, is more like struggling, striving, or searching for something than it is like talking or reading. Words do play their part but they are rarely the only feature of thought. This observation is supported by the experiments of the Wurzburg psychologists who showed that intelligent adaptive responses can occur in problem-solving situations without the use of either words or images of any kind. ‘Set and determining tendencies’ operate without the actual use of language in helping us to think purposefully and intelligently.

Again the study of speech, disorders due to brain injury or disease suggest that patients can think without having adequate control over their language. Some patients, for example, fail to find the names of objects presented to them and are unable to describe simple events which they witness; they even find it difficult to interpret long written notices. But they succeed in playing games of chess or draughts. They can use the concepts needed for chess playing or draughts playing but are unable to use many of the concepts in ordinary language. How they manage to do this we do not know. Yet animals such as Kohler’s chimpanzees can solve problems by working out strategies such as the invention of implements or climbing aids when such animals have no language beyond a few warning cries. Intelligent or ‘insightful’ behavior is not dependent in the case of monkeys on language skills; presumably human beings have various capacities for thinking situations which are likewise independent of language.

1. Mr. G. B. Watson thought, as did Plato, that the two activities of thinking and talking were
(a) nearly same (b) basically same (c) complementary (d) independent of each other

2. Mr. Ryle maintained that words
(a) are not necessary for thinking
(b) make thinking more specific
(c) inhibit the process of thinking
(d) none of the above

3. According to the author, words usually occur to us
(a) after the thought
(b) along with thought
(c) much before the thought
(d) much later than the thought

4. The fact that sometimes words fail to express our thoughts adequately prove that
(a) our vocabulary is limited compared to the range of thought
(b) there is a distinction between thoughts and words through which we express thoughts
(c) thoughts are non-specific, while words need effort
(d) thoughts occur effortlessly while words require effort

5. When we describe our thinking to other people, sometimes, we do not report everything because
(a) reporting everything is not necessary
(b) the process is too exhausting
(c) we do not report unspoken words and sentences that our thoughts contain
(d) our thoughts are out of the range of immediate reality.

6. The Wurzburg psychologists showed that words may not be necessary
(a) to think purposefully and intelligently
(b) in problem solving situations
(c) where deterministic thinking is involved
(d) none of the above

7. People with speech disorders due to brain injury normally find it difficult to
(a) think (b) read (c) speak (d) both (b) and (c)

8. The example of Kohler’s chimpanzees suggest that
(a) man can think without using words
(b) one can be inventive without using words
(c) there is thinking which does not involve use of words
(d) chimpanzees can think without using words

9. Speaking of non-linguistic skill involved in thinking, the author suggests that the ability to acquire these may depend upon
(a) the capacity to perceive
(b) the ability to understand language
(c) the ability to use language
(d) both (b) and (c)

10. While distinguishing thinking as “striving, searching” as compared to speaking and writing the author, probably implies that
(a) thinking is a process while speaking and reading are specific acts
(b) thinking precedes speaking
(c) thinking is overt while speaking and reading are not
(d) speaking and reading are overt while thinking is not

Answers:

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)

6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)

Aptitude Questions – 2 (for CAT and Bank Exams)

Aptitude Questions – 2 (for CAT and Bank Exams)

1. If a-3 = b3/2 and b = 4 then ‘a’ can take which of the following values?
(a) ½ (b) -1/8 (c) ¼ (d) 1/8 (e) 2
Ans: (a)
a-3 = b3/2 = 43/2 = 23. Thus a-3 = 23 -> a-1 = 2 -> a = ½.
Hence a = ½.

2. An empty basket, with a capacity for 50 oranges costs Rs 7.25. For the first 15 oranges bought each orange costs Rs 0.75 and every extra orange bought costs Rs 0.50 each. If a man has Rs 31.00 with him, what is the maximum number of oranges along with the requisite number of baskets for putting them in, he can buy?
(a) 31 (b) 62 (c) 40 (d) 50 (e) 47.
Ans: (c)
Let ‘n’ be the number of oranges that he bought along with one basket.
(option (b) alone requires more than one basket and it does not fit into the information given)
Now we have an equation —– 7.25 + (15 x 0.75) + (n – 15) x 0.50 = 31.00 (all figures in rupees)
7.25 + 11.25 + (n-15)x0.50 = 31.00 -> (n-15)x0.50 = 31.00 – 18.50 -> 12.50.
Thus (n-15) = 25 -> n = 25 + 15 = 40.

3. In a certain party, the ratio of boys to girls was 5 : 3 initially. After some time 10 boys left the party and the ration now became 1 : 1. How many people were originally there at the party?
(a) 48 (b) 32 (c) 64 (d) 40 (e) 56
Ans: (d)
No working required and the question can be answered from the choices.

4. If x3 = -27 and if y3 = (x2 + 7)(x – 1) then which of the following value ‘y’ can take?
(a) 2 x 3√4 (b) -2 (c) -4 (d) 2 (e) none of these
Ans: (c)
X3 = -27. Hence ‘x’ = -3. Y3 = (x2 + 7)(x – 1) -> (9 + 7)(-3-1) -> 16 x (-4) = -64. (after substituting
The value of ‘x’)
Thus ‘y3 = -64 and ‘y’ = -4.

5. a/4 + 4/a + a/4 + 4/a + a/4 + 4/a —————–
In the above sequence the odd numbered term is a/4 and the even numbered term is 4/a.
What is the sum of the first 40 terms of the sequence?
(a) 80 + 5a2 (b) (80 + 5a)/a (c) (80 + 5a2)/a (d) (80 + a2)/a (e) (5 + a)/80
Ans: (c)
Sum of 20 odd terms —— a/4 x 20 = 20a/4 -> 5a………… (i)
Sum of 20 even terms——4/a x 20 = 80/a…………………… (ii)
The sum of 40 terms in the sequence is — (i) + (ii) ——— 5a + 80/a -> (5a2 + 80)/a

6. A and B together worked for 4 hours and completed ½ of the job. A worked thrice as fast as B did. B left and A was joined by C and they finished the remaining job in 1 hour. How long C would have taken to complete the whole job by himself?
(a) 3 hours (b) 7/2 hours (c) 32/13 hours (d) 4 hours (e) 16/5 hours
Ans: (c)
Let ‘x’ be the time taken by A to complete the job while B takes 3x time to complete.
In 4 hours A & B together would have done —- 4/x + 4/3x = 16/3x job.
In four hours they have done 16/3x job that is equal to ½. -> 3x = 32 and x = 32/3
Let C take ‘c’ hours to complete the job.
In one hour A and C together finished the remaining job.
ie 1/x + 1/c = ½ -> 1/(32/3) + 1/c = ½ -> 3/32 + 1/c = ½
1/c = ½ – 3/32 = 13/32
Hence C will take 32/13 hours to complete the job.

7. In a party there are 12 boys and 15 girls. In how many different dancing pairs can be made out of the group?
(a) 60 (b) 180 (c) 150 (d) 300 (e) 250
Ans: (b)
The dancing pairs are —– 12C1 x 15C1 -> 12 x 15 = 180

8. A family consists of father, mother, son and daughter. The father is five years elder to his wife. The daughter is 23 years younger to her father and the son is 16 years younger to his mother. What is the difference in age between the son and the daughter?
(a) 17 years (b) 7 years (c) 5 years (d) 2 years (e) None of these
Ans: (d)
Let F, M, S and D be the ages of the father, mother, son and daughter.
F = M + 5. D = M + 5 – 23 ( F – 23 ) = M – 18.
S = M – 16
D = M – 18. Hence the difference between B and D is 2.

9. A shopkeeper marks the price of an item 60% over its cost price. However, during a sale promotion period he offered a discount of 40% on the marked price. If a customer pays Rs 24.00 for the item what is the profit/loss in the transaction for the trader?
(a) Rs 4 profit (b) Rs 2 profit (c) Rs 16 loss (d) Re 1 loss (e) Rs 4 loss
Ans: (d)
Let the cost price be ‘x’. Then the marked price is —- 1.6x (60% up)
On 1.6x the discount allowed is 0.64x (40% discount on the marked price)
Thus the realized value of the item is —- 0.96x and this equals to Rs 24 (the amount customer paid)
Hence the cost price of the item is x = 24 x 100/0.96 = Rs 25.
CP = 25. SP = 24. Hence the loss is Re 1 in the transaction.

10. A tank of volume 432 cu.ft.has one inlet and two outlet pipes. The inlet pipe fill the tank at the rate of 4 cu.in per minute, while the two outlet pipes drain the tank at the rate of 14 cu. In and 6 cu. In per minute respectively. If all the three pipes are opened when the tank is full, in how much time the tank will become empty?
(a) 777.6 hrs (b) 3 days (c) 15 days (d) 77.76 hrs (e) None of these.
Ans: (a)
This is a tricky question. Please note the volume of the tank is given in cubic feet while the inlet pipes filling and draining is given in cubic inches per minute. Hence the first thing to do is to convert the volume into cubic inches.
Volume of the tank — 432 cu.ft -> 432 x 12 x 12 x 12 = 746496 cubic inches ( 12 inches make one foot)
In one minute when the three pipes are opened the effective reduction in the volume is
—– 4 – 14 – 6 = -16 (When the tank is full in each minute the volume gets reduced by 16 cubic inches.
Hence, to drain 746496 cubic inches it would take — 746496/16 = 46656 minutes or
46656/60 = 777.6 hours.

Aptitude Questions (for CAT and Bank Exams)

Aptitude Questions ( for CAT and Bank exams)

1. A regular working day is of 8 hours and a regular week is 5 working days. A worker is paid Rs 24 per regular hour and Rs 32 per hour over time. If the worker earns Rs 4320.00 in four weeks then what is the total number of hours he worked?
(a) 180 (b) 175 (c) 160 (d) 195 (e) 200
Ans: (b)
During the four weeks the worker would have worked normal hours of — 5 x 8 x 4 = 160 hours.
For this normal working of 160 hours his wages will be —– 24 x 160 = Rs 3840.00
He actually earned Rs 4320 during the four weeks of working.
Thus the difference amount — Rs 4320 – Rs 3840 = Rs 480 represents his overtime.
His overtime wages for one hour is Rs 32 and hence he had worked overtime
For —— 480 / 32 = 15 hours.
Thus totally in 4 weeks he worked ——- 160 + 15 = 175 hours.

2. Five apples and four oranges cost the same as three apples and seven oranges. What is the ratio of the following —– cost of one orange / cost of one apple ?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 3 (e) 2 : 5
Ans: (a)
5 A + 4 O = 3 A + 7 O -> 2 A = 3 O -> O/A = 2/3 Ratio O : A = 2 : 3

3. The average of 2, 7, 6, and X is 5.The average of 18, 1, 6, X, and Y is 10. What is the value of ‘Y’?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 10 (d) 5 (e) 15
Ans: (a)
The total of —- 2 + 7 + 6 + x = 5 * 4 = 20. Hence the value of x = 20 – 15 = 5
The total of —- 18 + 1 + 6 + x + y = 10 * 5 = 50. Now substituting the value of x in this we get
— 18 + 1 + 6 + 5 + y = 50.
Hence y = 50 – 30 = 20.

4. In a certain boy’s camp, 20% of boys are from Maharashtra State and 30% of those are from Mumbai city. If there are 49 boys in the camp who are from Maharashtra State but not from Mumbai city, then what is the total number of boys in the camp?
(a) 70 (b) 245 (c) 163 (d) 350 (e) 817
Ans: (d)
Boys from Maharashtra State in the camp are 20%.
Of this, Boys from Mumbai city is 30% of 20% -> 6%
Excluding Mumbai city boys from Maharashtra State is —- 20% – 6% = 14% this is equal to 49 boys.
Hence the total number of boys in the camp is —- (49 x 100) / 14 = 350 boys.

5. The sum of the quotient and the reminder obtained when a number is divided by 4 is 8 and the sum of their squares is 34. Which of the following is the number?
(a) 17 (b) 26 (c) 21 (d) 23 (e) 29
Ans: (d)
23 when divided by 4 will give a quotient 5 and reminder 3. Sum of these aggregates to 8
The square of 5 is 25 and the square of 3 is 9. Aggregate of these two amounts to 34.

6. If the average of ‘m’ numbers is ‘a’ and when ‘x’ is added to the ‘m’ numbers the average of (m+1) numbers is ‘b’. then ‘x’ is equal to which of the following?
(a) Ma+b (b) m(a+b) (c) 2ma – mb (d) b-a+ma (e) (m+1)b – ma.
Ans: (e)
(ma + x) / m + 1 = b -> ma + x = mb + b -> x = mb + b – ma -> m(b – a) + b -> (m + 1)b – ma

7. If the ratio of A to B and ratio of X to Y are both equal to 1/3, then the ratio of (A + X) to (B + Y) is equal to:
(a) 5/6 (b) 1/12 (c) 1/3 (d) ½ (e) 1/6
Ans: (c)
A/B = X/Y = I/3 —– (A+X) / (B+Y) = ? Please observe the following:
2/4 = 3/6 = ½ —– (2+3) / (4+6) = 5/10 = ½.

8. P, Q and R, are all multiples of 5. Q is greater than P and less than R and R is greater than P. What is the value of (P-Q)(P-R) / (Q-R)
(a) -10 (b) -5 (c) 1 (d) 10 (e) cannot be determined
Ans: (a)
Let the values of P, Q and R be respectively 5, 10 and 15.
Then we have —- (5 – 10)(5-15) / (10-15) —— solving we get the answer — (-10)

9. Twice some value of ‘a’ is greater than another value ‘b’. But, twice ‘b’ is greater than twice ‘a’. If ‘c’ is less than one half of “b’ hen which of the following is correct?
(a) c < a < b (b) c > b > a (c) a < c < b (d) a < 2 < c < b/2 (e) c > a > b
Ans: (a)
Let us apportion value 4 for ‘a’. then, 2a = 8
Let the value of ‘b’ be 6. Then 2a is greater than ‘b’. But, 2b = 12 is greater than 2a.
Half of ‘b’ is ‘c’ and this equals to 3.
Hence we find, c (3) < a (4) < b (6) 10. A company manufactures two products A and B. Product A requires 3 units of material 1 and 4 units of material 2 for producing one unit of A. Product B requires 5 units of material 1 and 7 units of material 2 for producing one unit of B. If 26 units of A and B were produced, how many units of material 2 were used in the process? (a) 213 (b) 293 (c) 384 (d) 286 (e) None of these. Ans: (d) A simple question. Totally 4 + 7 = 11 units of material 2 is required in the process of producing one unit of A and B. Hence, for producing 26 units of each A and B the total quantity of material 2 required is ----- 26 x 11 = 286 units.

English Verbal (for CAT Exams)

English Verbal – (for CAT Exams)

Each sentence hereunder is broken into four parts; (a), (b), (c) and (d). Identify the part that has an error in it.

1. If you open (a) the book on page 201 (b) you will find the answer (c) to your own question. (d)
Ans: (b) use ‘to’ instead of ‘on’

2. Our third semester (a) begins (b) from (c) Monday the 1st March. (d)
Ans: (c) Use the word ‘on’ instead of ‘from’

3. Your girlfriend (a) has requested you (b) to send your letters (c) on her friend’s address. (d)
Ans: (d) The right word is ‘to’ and not ‘on’

4. Just some days ago (a) three months to be precise, (b) he was (c) desirous to marry her. (d)
Ans: (d) The right word is ‘desiring’ in the place of ‘desirous’

5. I am sorry, (a) I can’t claim that (b) I have never told a lie (c) nor deceived anybody. (d)
Ans: (d) Use the word ‘or’ in the place of ‘nor’

For the following words in Capital, please identify the one that is exactly opposite in meaning from among the choices given:

6. PHLEGMATIC
(a) Sick (b) Salubrious (c) Active (d) Incapacitated
Ans: (c)

7. PAROCHIAL
(a) Dogmatic (b) Dominant (c) Cosmopolitan (d) Niggardly
Ans: (c)

8. OBEISANCE
(a) Luxuriance (b) Defiance (c) Brilliance (d) Truculence
Ans: (b)

9. PERSPICUOUS
(a) Unlettered (b) Obscure (c) Not stretchable (d) Untidy
Ans: (b)

10. PECCANT
(a) Not offending (b) Not praiseworthy (c) Undesirable (d) Severe
Ans: (a)

The following questions have one or two blanks in them followed by four sets of words. Choose the one that fits the blanks and makes a meaningful sentence:

11. The tricks and devices of oratory are valid enough, but when the ————-between the style and substance is upset in favour of style we talk of ———— rhetoric.
(a) Balance …… empty
(b) Relationship …. Mighty
(c) Ratio ….. convincing
(d) Affinity …… futile
Ans: (a)

12. Style is important but ———– ; we can recognize it and say a lot about it, except what really it is.
(a) Unidentifiable
(b) Understandable
(c) Unspeakable
(d) Intangible
Ans: (d)

13. At its most extreme, the cult of the subconscious approaches the ————– but the basic notion that the subconscious mind contains unformulated emotions and experiences that ———- our behavior seems reasonable enough.
(a) Divine ……ennobles
(b) Ridiculous …… influence
(c) Impossible ….. shapes
(d) Supernatural ….. impels
Ans: (b)

14. A fat lady is depressed, so she eats more; this makes her ———-and she gets more ———. So, she eats more.
(a) Fatter …… fat
(b) Depressed …… fat
(c) Fatter …….. depressed
(d) Fat …… fat
Ans: (c)

15. Throughout the ages, literature and art have pictured the fat man – from legend’s Santa Claus to Shakespeare’s hulking Falstaff – as a ————-soul, proud of his ———-.
(a) Jolly ……. Girth
(b) Merry ………..standing
(c) Obese ……. Fat
(d) Happy …….. physique
Ans: (a)

In the following questions, the sentences are disarranged. Each word in the sentence is given a number. You will have to arrange the words in a proper manner to make a meaningful sentence. The number for the last word in the sentence will be your answer.

16. The (1) proved (2) waterloo (3) his (4) scandal (5) Watergate (6) be (7) to (8).
The Watergate scandal proved to be his waterloo.
Ans: (3) (waterloo)

17. The (1) price (2) that (3) share (4) of (5) crashed (6) has (7)
The price of that share has crashed.
Ans: (6) (Crashed)

18. This (1) milestone (2) is (3) in (4) history (5) Indian (6) a (7)
This is a milestone in Indian history.
Ans: (5) (history)

19. Bill (1) the (2) Parliament (3) the (4) was (5) in (6) introduced (7)
The bill was introduced in the Parliament.
Ans: (3) (Parliament)

20. Turn (1) agitation (2) the (3) took (4) violent (5) a (6)
The agitation took a violent turn.
Ans: (1) (Turn)

Data Interpretatiomn – CAT Exam

Data Interpretation – CAT Exam

Readers are requested to tabulate the information given in a tabular form before proceeding to answer. My carry of the details has not come in a proper format. Hence this request. Please bear with me.

The following table shows the sales statistics of four branches of a company. Please study the information given and answer the questions that follow:

January February March
First Last Sale First Last Sale First Last Sale
Bill No Bill No Bill No Bill No Bill No Bill No
Mumbai 2864 2942 345641 2943 3106 461750 3107 3280 485097
Delhi 4051 4101 147345 4102 4204 231469 4205 4296 221895
Kolkata 3469 3601 269473 3602 3704 208947 3705 3762 210494
Chennai 2644 2703 165442 2704 2787 187928 2788 2841 175427

1. What was the total number of bills raised by the company from January to March?
(a) 1652 (b) 777 (c) 1155 (d) 1040 (e) None of these.
Ans: (c)
Tricky question: The normal tendency is to find the difference between the last bill no of March and the first bill no of January for all the four branches and the total will be marked as the answer . This way the total would come to 1151.
But the number of bills raised in any month is the difference between the last bill of the month and the last bill of the previous month.
To answer this question we should take the last bill of December for all the branches and then subtract the same from the last bill of March and that would give the total number of bills raised during this three month period.
The correct answer is —– 417 + 246 + 294 + 198 (respectively for the four branches) totaling 1155.

2. Over the three month period which branch’s average sale per bill was the highest?
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai (e) cannot be determined
Ans: (a)
To answer this question the total sales for three months for the four branches is to be arrived first and then divided by the number of bills raised during the three months period to arrive at the average sale. The result is as follows:
Mumbai —- Total Sales — 1292488 Total bills raised – 417 Average per bill — 3099.49
Delhi —– Total Sales — 600709 do 246 do — 2441.90
Kolkata —- Total Sales – 688914 do 294 do — 2343.24
Chennai — Total Sales – 528797 do 198 do — 2670.69

3. In the three months January – March period, what was the contribution of Kolkata branch to the total sales of the company?
(a) 28% (b) 22% (c) 31% (d) 17% (e) None of these
Ans: (b)
Total sales during the three month period is —– 3110908 (Add the total sales in the previous question)
Total sales of Kolkata branch during the three months period — 688914.
Hence the contribution of Kolkata branch —- 688914/3110908 * 100 = 22%

4. Ranking the branches by the sales amount during the three month period results in the order:
(a) Mumbai – Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai
(b) Mumbai – Kolkata – Chennai – Delhi
(c) Mumbai – Kolkata – Delhi – Chennai
(d) Mumbai – Chennai – Kolkata – Delhi
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)

5. Which of the statements given below are true?
(i) Sales of all four branches increased every month.
(ii) Sale of Chennai branch in March was approximately its average sale for three months
(iii) Mumbai branch raised the highest number of bills in January.
(a) ii & iii (b) I, ii, and iii (c) I and ii (d) ii only (e) None of these
Ans: (d)

The following table shows the distribution of labour in Maharashtra over the period 2001-2003. Please
Read the particulars carefully, and then answer the questions that follow:

Distribution of Labour Force in Maharashtra

Year 2001 2002 2003
Cultivator 6804658 6857249 6858163
Agriculture Labour 3072399 3094612 3118406
Lining,Quarry,Forestry 119930 117461 118308
Household 194567 210649 208452
Manufacturing 78329 105642 127897
Construction 49481 53654 55781
Trade & Commerce 357846 361973 363415
Transport 88726 104950 104817
Other Services 267176 295404 306138

Total 11033112 11201594 11261377

6. From 2001 level the total labour force in2003 increased by :
(a) 0.5% (b) 2% (c) 3.5% (d) 1.2% (e) None of these
Ans: (b)
7. In percentage terms which sector displayed the highest increase in labour force from 2001 to 2002?
(a) Household (b) Manufacturing (c) Transport (d) Construction (e) None of these
Ans: (b)
8. If the output of the agricultural sector was directly proportional to the labour input in the sector, and if in 2001 total crop yield was 25.4 million tons in Maharashtra what was the crop yield in Maharashtra in 2003?
(a) 32.7 million tons (b) 36.5 million tons (c) 40 million tons (d) 25.8 million tons
(e) Cannot be determined
Ans: (d)
Use the direct Time and Work formula: More workers more output/less workers less output

9. Between 2002 and 2003 if we look at the proportion of labor force deployed in Cultivators, Agriculture labour and Manufacturing we conclude that the proportions:
(a) Of all the three increased
(b) Cultivators and Manufacturing increased while Agriculture declined
(c) Agriculture and Manufacturing increased while Cultivators declined
(d) Manufacturing increased while Cultivators and agriculture declined
(e) None of these
Ans: (a)

10. From 2001 to 2003, in which sectors deployment of labour force had a decline in absolute terms?
(a) Cultivators, Construction
(b) Household, Trade and Commerce
(c) Lining, Quarry and Forestry
(d) No sector
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)

Reasoning – 9

Reasoning – 9

In the following questions a statement is given followed by three conclusions. Read them carefully and then answer:
(A) If the conclusion follows from the given statement
(B) If the conclusion contradicts the given statement
(C) If the conclusion neither follows from nor contradicts the given statement.

1. Statement: Boys are illogical.
Conclusions: Nobody is despised who can manage a dog.
Illogical persons are despised.
Therefore boys cannot manage dogs.
Ans: (A)

2. Statement: My plates are the only things I have that are made of glass.
Conclusions: I find all your presents very useful.
None of my plates are of the slightest use.
Therefore, your presents to me are made of glass.
Ans: (C)

3. Statement: Everyone who is sane can do logic.
Conclusions: No lunatics are fit to serve on the jury.
None of your sons can do logic.
Therefore, none of your sons are fit to serve on a jury.
Ans: (A)

4. Statement: No experienced engineer is incompetent.
Conclusion: Ram is always blundering.
No competent person is always blundering.
Therefore, Ram is not an engineer.
Ans: (C)

5. Statement: No one is taken in ‘The Times’ unless he is well educated.
Conclusion: No hodgepogs can read.
Those who cannot read are not well educated
Therefore, all hodgepogs are taken in ‘The Times’
Ans: (B)

The following four statements are about the composition of participants in five different get together.

(A) The number of male participants is the same as the number of female participants but is not quite so large as the number of child participants.
(B) The number of male participants is larger than both the number of female and child participants.
(C) The number of child participants is larger than the number of male participants which is larger than the number of female participants.
(D) The number of female participants is the same as the number of male participants, but the number of child participants is less than the number of female participants.
The following questions in the form of statements that is logically equivalent to one and only of the above four statements marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). For each question select which of the above is its logical equivalent.

6. The number of female participants is the same as the number of male participants but is not so small as the number child participants.
Ans: (D)

7. The number of female participants is less than the number of male participants which is not as large as the number of child participants.
Ans: (C)

8. The numbers of male and female participants are both less than the number of child participants and the former two numbers are same.
Ans: (A)

9. The number of female participants is less than that of male participants which is larger than that of child participants.
Ans: (B)

10. The number of male participants is larger than that of the child participants and is equal to the number of female participants.
Ans: (D)

Read the following information and then answer the questions that follow:
X, Y, Z and W, are four friends who do not mind exchanging items.
X had two chess boards each costing Rs 500 and a record player.
Z originally had a cycle and a Walkman.
Each cricket bat costs Rs 700.
Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y.
X gave his record player costing Rs 2000 to Y.
Z got a camera costing Rs 1500 from W
The cycle Z had costs Rs 1000 and the Walkman Rs 700.
Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras total cost of which is Rs 5000.
X gave one of his chess board to Z and took Z’s cycle.
Z gave his Walkman to W.

11. Total cost of materials that Z had at the beginning was:
(a) Rs 1700 (b) Rs 2100 (c) Rs 3000 (d) Rs 5000.
Ans: (a)

12. At the beginning who had the costliest items?
(a) X (b) Z (c) Y (d) W
Ans: (d)

13. After exchange of items, Y had
(a) One cricket bat
(b) One record player
(c) One cricket bat and one record player
(d) One record player and one camera
Ans: (c)

14. After exchange of items who had the items total cost of which is Rs 1500?
(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) W
Ans: (a)

15. Who made profits after exchange of items?
(a) X and Y (b) Y and Z (c) Z and W (d) W and X
Ans: (b)

16. Who have no cricket bat at the end of exchange of items?
(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) W
Ans: (a)

17. In the process of exchange of items, Y received an item from whom?
(a) X (b) Z (c) W (d) none
Ans: (a)

18. At the end of exchange of items, W had in his possession
(a) One cricket bat and one Walkman
(b) One cricket bat and one camera
(c) One camera and one Walkman
(d) One camera, one Walkman and one cricket bat
Ans: (d)

19. Who incurred maximum loss after the exchange of items?
(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) W
Ans: (a)

20. After completion of exchange of items , X had with him an item which no one else had. What is the item?
(a) Walkman
(b) Cycle
(c) Record Player
(d) Chess Board
Ans: (b)

Reasoning – Decision Making

Reasoning – Decision Making

The following are the criteria for registration to a Training Workshop. The participant must:
(i) Be more than 30 years of age.
(ii) Be a graduate with 60% marks.
(iii) Have at least four years of experience of working in industry.
(iv) Be sponsored by his/her employer for the workshop.
(v) Have sent one paper for presentation in the workshop.

However, if a person fulfils all other criteria except for:
(a) (iii) above – should be registered as a Trainee participant.
(b) (ii) above – regarding percentage of marks but is a Post-Graduate should be registered
(c) (i) above – should be referred to the workshop coordinator.

Based on these criteria and the information provided in each case, make the decision regarding registration for the workshop. Do not assume anything and if the information provided is not adequate to take a decision – the answer would be data inadequate. Study each case and give answer:

(A) If to be registered
(B) If to be registered as a Trainee participant
(C) If to be referred to the Workshop Coordinator
(D) If data inadequate
(E) If NOT to be registered.

1. 31 years old Kavita Sinha has 66% marks in her post – graduation. She has two years of experience of industry and has been sponsored by her employer. She has also submitted the paper.

2. 31 years old Anjanee Konar is a Post – Graduate in Economics. She has been sponsored by her employer and has submitted the paper. She has been working in the industry for ten years.

3. Mohan Dule has been working in the industry for the last six years. He informed he will not be submitting the paper. He has been sponsored by his employer. He is 29 years old and has got 64% marks in graduation.

4. Vijay Madhav is 32 years old and has been working in the industry for the last seven years. He has been sponsored by his employer and has sent the paper.

5. Ram Vilavan is a graduate with 60% marks and has three years’ experience in the industry. He is 31 years old and has submitted the paper.

6. Dipen Shah is a post-graduate with 5 years’ experience in the industry. He is 38 years old and has been sponsored by his employer. He will not present the paper in the workshop.

7. Ashok Dongre is 35 years old and has submitted the paper. He has 3 years’ experience in the industry and has been sponsored by his employer. He scored 59% marks in graduation.

8. Vinay Kelkar has been sponsored by his employer. He is 36 years old and will not be presenting the paper. He is a post-graduate with 4 years’ industry experience.

9. Madhu Sapre has got 2 years’ experience in industry. She has submitted the paper. She is a post-graduate and has been sponsored by her employer.

10. 45 years old Ragini Ratan has been sponsored by her employer. She has got 59% marks in her post-graduation and has 6 years’ experience of industry. She has sent the paper for presentation.

Answers:

1. (B) (Condition (iii) not fulfilled)

2. (A) ( All conditions are fulfilled)

3. (E) (Condition (e) not fulfilled)

4. (D) (Information regarding age is not given)

5. (B) (Condition (iii) not fulfilled)

6. (E) (Not complied with condition (e))

7. (E) (Condition (ii) and (iii) not fulfilled)

8. (E) (Condition (e) not complied with)

9. (D) (Information on age is not given)

10. (A) (All conditions are fulfilled)

Note: For questions 4 and 9 Option (D) could also be a possible answer.

English – Verbal – 20

English – Verbal – 20

Each of the following questions begin with a sentence that has either one or two blanks. Each sentence is followed by five answer choices consisting of words or phrases. Identify the answer choice that completes the sentence best.

1. The fundamental ————- between dogs and cats is for the most part a myth; members of these species often coexist ———–.
(a) Antipathy — amiably
(b) Disharmony — uneasily
(c) Compatibility — together
(d) Relationship — peacefully
(e) Difference — placidly
Ans: (c)

2. His desire to state his case completely was certainly reasonable; however, his lengthy technical explanations were monotonous and tended to ———- rather than ———- the jury.
(a) Enlighten — inform
(b) Interest — persuade
(c) Provoke — influence
(d) Allay — pacify
(e) Bore — convince
Ans: (e)

3. In some countries, government restrictions are ———— that businesses operate with nearly complete impunity.
(a) Traditional
(b) Judicious
(c) Ambiguous
(d) Exacting
(e) Lax
Ans: (c)

4. The recent Oxford edition of the works of Shakespeare is ————- because it not only departs frequently from the readings of most other modern editions, but also challenges many of the basic ———– of textual criticism.
(a) Controversial — conventions
(b) Typical — innovations
(c) Inadequate — norms
(d) Curious — projects
(e) Pretentious — explanations
Ans: (a)

5. The early form of writing known as Linear B was ———- in 1952, but no one has yet succeeded in the ———– of the still more ancient Linear A.
(a) Superseded — explanation
(b) Encoded — transcription
(c) Obliterated — analysis
(d) Deciphered — interpretation
(e) Discovered — obfuscation
Ans: (d)

6. Considering everything she had been through, her reaction was quite normal and even ———-;
I was therefore surprised at the number of ———— comments and raised eyebrows that her response elicited.
(a) Commendable — complimentary
(b) Odious — insulting
(c) Apologetic — conciliatory
(d) Commonplace — typical
(e) Laudable — derogatory
Ans: (e)

7. The purpose of the proposed insurance policy is to ———– the burden of medical costs, thereby removing what is for many people a major ———– medical care.
(a) Augment — problem with
(b) Eliminate — perquisite of
(c) Ameliorate — study of
(d) Assuage — impediment to
(e) Clarify — explanation for
Ans: (b)

Each of the following questions begins with a single word in capital letters. Five answer choices follow. Select the answer choice that has the most opposite meaning of the word in capital letters.
Since some of the questions requires distinguishing fine shades of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding your selection.

8. UNDERMINE
(a) Appreciate
(b) Donate
(c) Bolster
(d) Decay
(e) Simplify
Ans: (c)

9. OBSEQUIOUS
(a) Original
(b) Haughty
(c) Casual
(d) Virtuous
(e) Informative
Ans: (b)

10. BLANCH
(a) Stand
(b) Repay
(c) Flush
(d) Relax
(e) Cope
Ans: (C)

11. DISSIPATED
(a) Temperate
(b) Pleased
(c) Inundated
(d) Encouraged
(e) Planned
Ans: (a)

12. FECUNDITY
(a) Levity
(b) Sanity
(c) Cowardice
(d) Sterility
(e) Ventilation
Ans: (d)

13. ENCUMBER
(a) Animate
(b) Inaugurate
(c) Bleach
(d) Disburden
(e) Obliterate
Ans: (d)

14. DISSEMINATE
(a) Fertilize
(b) Ordain
(c) Suppress
(d) Explain thoroughly
(e) Make an impression
Ans: (c)

Time & Work (Selective Placement Questions)

Time & Work (Selective Placement Questions)

1. 5 men working 6 hours a day can make 10 toys in 6 days. Then in how many days 12 men working 8 hours per day can make 16 toys?
Ans: 3 days.
(Points to note in these types of questions:
More work, more days. More hours, less number of days, More men, less number of days and conversely the same applies.)
The easy way of answering the above question is to segment the given information keeping the one that is to be arrived at the end.
Men Toys Hours Days
5 10 6 6
12 16 8 x (Now relate each segment with the last keeping the above in mind)

X = 6 x 5/12 x 16/10 x 6/8 —– Reducing we get X = 3 days.

2. 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days. 13 men and 24 boys can do the same work in 4 days. How long will 7 men and 10 boys take to do the same work?
Ans: 8 1/3 days.
12 M + 16 B = 5 days In 1 day —— 1/12 M + 1/16 B = 1/5 —– (i)

13 M + 24 B = 4 days In 1 day —— 1/13 M + 1/24 B = 1/4 —– (ii) Equating both (i) and (ii)
We get
60 M + 80 B = 52 M + 96 B -> 8 M = 16B -> 1 M = 2B

7M + 10B -> 7M + 5M = 12M. From Equation (i) we find – 12M + 8 M = 20M takes 5 days.

Hence 12 M will take —– 5 x 20/12 = 8 1/3 days.

3. If 5 men and 3 boys can reap 23 acres in 4 days and 3 men and 2 boys can reap 7 acres in 2 days then how many boys should help 7 men reap 45 acres in 6 days?
Ans: 2 boys.
Let ‘m’ and ‘b’ be unknown work done by a man and a boy in one day. Thus we now have
4 x (5m + 3b) = 23 ——- (i) and
2 x (3m + 2b) = 7 ——–(ii)
Equating the two we get —- 20m + 12b = 23 —— (i) and
6m + 4b = 7 ——(ii)
Multiplying (ii) by 3 and subtracting from (i) we get — 2m = 2 and one ‘m’ = 1
Substituting this value of ‘m’ in equation (ii) we get
2 x (3*1 + 2b)= 7 —– 6 + 4b = 7 -> 4b = 1 and b = 1/4
Thus we now have — 1man in one day can reap 1 acre and 1boy in one day can reap 1/4 acre.
Hence, 7 men in 6 days will reap —- 7x1x6 = 42 acres.
Total acres to be reaped is 45 acres and the boys in 6 days will have to reap 3 acres.
So the number of boys required to reap in one day —– 3/ (1/4 *6) -> 2
Hence, 2 boys will have to assist the 7 men in reaping 45 acres of land in 6 days.

4. A and B are working on your car. A alone can complete the work in six hours while B takes eight hours to complete the same work. A and B together start the work and after 2 hours A leaves to attend some other work. In how much more time B will be able to complete the job?
Ans: 3 1/3 hours.
A in one hour can do —– 1/6 job. In 2 hours can do —- 2/6 -> 1/3 job.
B in one hour can do —– 1/8 job. In 2 hours can do —- 2/8 -> 1/4 job.
Thus in 2 hours A & B together would have completed —– 1/3 + 1/4 = 7/12 work.
The remaining work is — 1 – 7/12 = 5/12. This will have to be completed by B alone.
B will take —– (5/12) / (1/8) —- 3 1/3 hours.

5. A and B together can finish a job in T days. A alone can complete the job in (T+5) days while B takes (T+45) days to finish the job. What is the value of T?
Ans: 15 days
A in one day will do –—- 1/T+5 work.
B in one day will do —— 1/T+45 work.
Thus we have an equation ——————- 1/T+5 + 1/T+45 = 1/T
(T+45) + (T + 5) / (T+5)(T+45) = 1/T proceeding further we get
T(T+45) + T(T+5) = (T+5)(T+45) -> T2 + 45T + T2 + 5T = T2 + 45T + 5T + 225
Reducing the equation we get —— T2 = 225 and T = 15.

6. Two workers A & B manufactured a batch of identical parts. A worked for 2 hours and B worked for 3 hours and they did half the job. They worked together for another 3 hours and 1/20 of the job is left out. How much time B would have taken if he had worked alone to complete the job?
Ans: 15 hours
Let ‘x’ and ‘y’ be the time taken by A and B separately to complete the job alone.
We now have an equation —- 2/x + 3/y = 1/2 (job) ——– (i)
After A and B working together for 3 hours the remaining job is —1/20
Thus 19/20 job was already done by A and B individually and jointly.
A and B in 3 hours have completed —- 1 – 1/2 – 1/20 = 9/20 job.
We now have a second equation —- 3/x + 3/y = 9/20 —— (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get the value of ‘y’ as 15 hours.

7. A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works on it for 10 days and then leave. B then finishes the remaining work in 42 days. If A and B together had worked then in how many days they would have completed the work?
Ans: 30 days.
A in one day can do 1/80 job. So in 10 days he had finished 10/80 -> 1/8 job.
The remaining job was 7/8 and this B completed in 42 days.
So, B in one day can do —- (7/8) / 42 -> 7/ 336 -> 1/48
Thus A and B in one day can do —– 1/80 + 1/48 = (3 + 5)/ 240 -> 8/240 -> 1/30.
Hence A and B together will complete the job in 30 days.

8. 15 men working 8 hours per day take 21 days to complete a work. In how many days 21 women working at 6 hours per day would take to complete the same job if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
Ans: 30 days.
3 women do as much work as 2 men. So, the 21 women will be equivalent to 14 men.
We can now segment the information as under:
15 M 8 Hours 21 days.
14 M* 6 Hours x days (* relates to 21 women)

X = 21 x 15/14 x 8/6 = 30 days.